Idea tr
DORAL (Part I)(DRL) - $39.00 on Mar 15, 2005 by molly747
2010
2011
Price:
$39.00
EarningsPerShare:
Shares Outstanding (in M):
N/M
P/E:
Market Cap (in $M):
4,200
P/FCF:
Net Debt (in $M):
N/M
EBIT (in $M):
N/M
N/M
TEV (in $M):
N/M
TEV/EBIT:
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Description tr
The island of Puerto Rico is home to many interesting things including beautiful beaches, Old San Juan, Bacardi Rum, and the most egregious accounting in financial services.  I am recommending a short in Doral Financial as I believe the company’s true economic earnings power is less than 60% of what bulls expect.  Like many specialty finance companies in the late 1990s, Doral has done the financial equivalent of selling its soul to the devil:  in return for rapid earnings growth and a soaring stock price, it is massively abusing non-cash gain-on-sale accounting.  All of the information in this write-up has been derived from Doral’s public filings, unless otherwise noted.

Doral is the largest originator of mortgages in Puerto Rico.  The company originates approximately $8.0 billion of mortgages annually (based on the last quarterly run-rate), approximately 70% of which is in Puerto Rico, and 30% is wholesale U.S. originations.   There are a number of reasons why the Puerto Rican mortgage and banking market is actually quite attractive, and Doral is certainly not a bad business.  However, Doral is not a 3.9% ROA mortgage bank, as I will detail below.

There is a housing shortage in Puerto Rico, which leads to stability in the mortgage market.  This shortage has resulted in rapid home price appreciation which creates a strong purchase market and allows home owners to quickly build equity in their homes.  Given that most refinances on the island are driven by homeowners’ desire to take equity out of their home rather than get a lower rate, refinance origination volumes are less rate-sensitive than the conforming mortgage business in the United States.  This dynamic is similar to the subprime mortgage market in the U.S.  As a result of this market dynamic, I don’t believe that origination volumes are likely to decline materially (although a moderate decline in volume is likely, it is not a part of the short thesis).   Doral’s large market share (40%), as well as the retail (rather than wholesale) nature of the mortgage market in Puerto Rico add to the attractiveness of the business.  I am not going to harp on the positive aspects of the market, as anyone who is interested in learning more can turn to any sell-side initiating coverage report on the company.  The company does a good job of courting sell-side analysts, and while the analysts generally do a terrible job of analyzing the underlying economics, they are quite proficient at taking the market data that Doral gives them, condensing it into paragraph format and putting pretty charts alongside.  The banking market in general in Puerto Rico is attractive because the banks on the island don’t pay much in the way of taxes (which is why Puerto Rican residents aren’t so excited about becoming U.S. citizens).  Again, I won’t waste space by going into the details on the tax situation, as sell-side reports can explain why this is the case.  Doral’s effective tax rate has been approximately 18%.  

The gain on sale that Doral books on its mortgages comprises the majority (70% - 80%) of its revenue.  The Company’s U.S. mortgage business (30% of total DRL production) is very low margin wholesale production.  Doral’s description of its U.S. mortgage business is as follows:  [Doral] purchases conforming mortgage loans on a wholesale basis from U.S. financial institutions without the related servicing rights which are generally securitized into FNMA or FHLMC securities and sold into the market.  Gain on sale for the conforming U.S. mortgages is probably around 50 basis points.  The non-conforming Puerto Rican loans are responsible for the vast majority of the gain on sale revenue (70% in 2003 and 85% in 2004).  Non-conforming loans are so named because they can not be sold to Fannie or Freddie.  According to DRL, the principal deviations that do not permit non-conforming loans to qualify for such programs are relaxed requirements for income verification or credit history, or a loan amount in excess of those permitted by Fannie and Freddie.  In the case of Doral’s non-conforming production the constraint is likely not loan amount, as the average non-conforming loan originated by DRL is about $90K in size (while the ceiling for FNM and FRE is approximately $330K).   These non-conforming loans are similar to Alt-A (or more appropriately no-doc subprime) loans in the United States, for those of you that follow mortgage companies.  These loans are essentially no documentation, subprime credit, small balance home loans in Puerto Rico.  Credit performance appears to have been extremely strong in the past due to the rapid price appreciation in Puerto Rican real estate, though I will note that many people in the market point out that loans to this customer segment are extremely high risk, and Puerto Rican banks will not carry them on balance sheet without a credit guarantee from Doral.

The non-conforming loans are sold in private transactions (with unique structures and accounting – think of it as similar to an MBS securitization) to other Puerto Rican domiciled financial institutions.  In this structure Doral basically sells these low balance no-doc subprime conventional (30 year fixed interest rate) loans on a floating rate basis.  Doral agrees to receive the fixed coupon on the mortgage and pay to the buyer of the transaction a coupon indexed to 3 month LIBOR.  Doral retains any net interest income between the fixed loan coupons they originate and the floating rate loan coupons they sell backed by the fixed coupon loans.  This creates an IO (interest only) strip that Doral then values, takes as a gain on sale through the income statement, and books on the balance sheet as an IO asset.  Technically this is an Inverse IO (IIO) as the pay portion floats with LIBOR and the receive portion is fixed.  The average spread to 3 month LIBOR in these transactions is somewhere around 150 bps (according to the company, buyers of the loans, and a fixed income trader who is familiar with the paper).  This paper is attractive to banks and other fixed income buyers in Puerto Rico since it is floating rate, which is rare on the island (floating rate paper helps local banks reduce interest rate risk in their short-dated funding), and it qualifies for tax advantaged treatment.  By funding the fixed rate loans with the floating rate paper in the sale, the interest rate risk that the local banks are eager to avoid is transferred back to Doral.  It is important to note that the past four years have been a historically profitable time to take this interest rate risk due to the sustained steepness of the yield curve.

In these loan sale transactions, Doral sells the loans on full-recourse basis meaning DRL retains the credit risk (this is potentially a very important point).  The coupon on the low balance non-conforming mortgages are 7.0%-7.5% on average (it has been drifting downward as a result of increasing competition in the last two years and market contacts tell me that most loans are currently being originated below a 7% yield).  Therefore Doral’s spread is the 7.25% average coupon, less 3 month LIBOR (currently 2.80%), less a spread of 150 basis points, less a servicing fee and credit loss assumption.  Doral strips 25bps off of the loan coupon and values that in its MSR (it should be noted that since these are very small balance loans with a high balance of non-performers, both factors that increase servicing expense as a percent of loan balance serviced, the MSR related to these loans should be valued far lower than conventional conforming MSR) so I will assume 25bps as the servicing fee.  The company assumes no credit losses when modeling and valuing its IO cash flows.  I will give Doral the benefit of the doubt and use this assumption as well given the historically low losses on Puerto Rican mortgages resulting from a decade of strength in the island’s housing market.  The table below walks through the various cash flow assumptions that result in the initial spread on a non-conforming mortgage originated and sold in private transactions by Doral:

 Coupon on mortgage:                           7.25%
 Less:  90 day LIBOR:                          2.80%
 Less:  spread over 90 Day LIBOR:              1.50%
 Less:  servicing expense                      0.25%
 Less:  credit losses                          0.00%
 Net Spread to DRL at the outset:              2.70%

Doral books a gain on sale at the time that it enters the non-conforming loan transaction and creates the above calculated spread.  The gain on sale should be the present value of the most probably future cash flows that are related to the loan sale transaction.  The key assumptions in this calculation are: 1) the average life of the transaction, 2) the net spread received each year of that average life, 3) the rate at which these cash flows are discounted.

So what are these IIOs worth?  What SHOULD the gain on sale be?  Let’s first determine the key assumptions:

ASSUMPTIONS FOR IO VALUATION

   1) the average life of the transaction  ------------------>  5 years

This is one area where it is difficult to come to a firm view.  There is very little data available on the life of the small balance loan product.  We do know that this product comprises 55% of the DRL servicing portfolio and the overall portfolio has had a run-off rate of 20%-28% over the last couple years.  This would imply an average life for this product of 4 to 5 years.  Since there are prepayment penalties for the first 3-4 years typically, it seems reasonable these loans would survive on the books for that long.  So we will assume that the average life of this loan product is 5 years.

   2) the net spread received each year of that life  -------->  0.90%
       
Currently, the going in spread on one of these transactions is the 270 bps we calculated above.  But, because of the inverse (receive fixed, pay floating) nature of these IOs, that spread will not be enjoyed for the life of the deal.  The cash flow assumption used to value this IO must consider what the forward curve indicates LIBOR (ie the funding cost) will be in the future.  As there is an upward sloping curve the expectation is that this 270 bps is declining each period going forward for the life of the transaction.  To get an accurate assessment of this expected cash flow stream one should look at what forward LIBOR indicates the spread would be for each quarter for the 5 year period being valued (ie what is 3 month LIBOR expected to be for each period for the life of the transaction).  A shortcut way accomplish the same result is to use the 5 year swap to approximate the average expected LIBOR for the life of the transaction.  The 5 year swap is currently at 4.60%.  So incorporating this into the cash flow table from above, we get:

 Coupon on mortgage:                           7.25%
 Less:  5 year swap                            4.60%
 Less:  spread over LIBOR                      1.50%
 Less:  servicing expense                      0.25%
 Less:  credit losses                          0.00%
 Net Spread to DRL fully swapped:              0.90%

The credit loss used in this analysis assumes that the housing boom in Puerto Rico continues unabated and that losses don’t increase, even as market contacts tell me this loan product is being offered at ever higher LTVs (often greater than 100%) and to ever shakier credits as the mortgage producers stretch for volumes.  Any deterioration in the housing market and credit performance would significantly impair this cash flow assumption which assumes a world’s best mortgage credit performance of no losses.
                       
   3) the rate at which these cash flows are discounted  ----->  10%

Choosing discount rates is always a very subjective exercise.  What discount does the uncertainty of the stream of cash flows warrant?  What return would the market require in order to exchange cash today for these future cash flows?  Similar assets in the United States are discounted anywhere from 12% to 25%.  

Plain vanilla conventional conforming MSRs are discounted at the lower end of that spectrum.  These MSRs have a more volatile life expectancy, yet the spread is fixed and there is no credit risk.  So the market uses 12% for an asset that has a more volatile life, but that doesn’t bear the credit risk or spread risk of the Doral IOs.  The value of an appropriately booked MSR can be approximately hedged so the risk of loss is reduced, warranting this low discount rate.

U.S. subprime residuals are discounted at 18%-20%.  The life on these assets are less volatile than conventional conforming MSRs, yet there is credit risk and spread risk as these are Inverse IOs much like Doral’s IO asset.  This is an asset with a shorter average life than Doral’s IOs.  All else equal, that would call for a lower discount rate for the US sub-prime residual as you are relying on a shorter period of cash flows, so there is greater visibility into the performance and a shorter duration.  Subprime valuations also assume very high credit losses versus Doral’s 0% credit loss assumption, so the underlying assumptions in a sub-prime residual have a greater margin of safety.

To give Doral the benefit of the doubt, I will use a 10% discount rate, though there are very strong arguments that it should be substantially higher.


INTEREST ONLY STRIP VALUATION  ----------------------------->  3.5%-5.5%

   IO VALUATION ANALYSIS:

Using the above assumptions, this becomes a simple DCF.  

Discount 90bps of cash flow received every year for a 5 year average life at a 10% discount rate.  This results in an IO valuation of 3.4%.  3.4% is a phenomenally good gain on sale (loans are sold at par so no capital markets loss to offset the booking of the IO) for a mortgage production business and Doral deserves a great deal of respect for building a market position that allows them to extract these economics from an industry that has become commoditized most other places in the world.  

While I do not believe these assumptions are too conservative, lets relax them a bit to give Doral an even greater benefit of the doubt in its mortgage profitability.  Lets first extend the average life of the loans to 7 years, the longest Doral states that some of the loans last.  If we assume the life of these loans is 7 years we must then also adjust the expected spread based on 7 year funding which costs an incremental 16 bps (ie 7 year swap less 5 year swap: 476bps - 460bps = 16bps).  Actually let’s not even charge this incremental funding cost against their spread to give them further benefit of the doubt.  Finally, let’s continue to assume no credit losses and discount this cash flow stream at 7 year treasuries (4.35%).  Therefore we have a 90bps spread for 7 years at a 4.35% discount rate.  This gets us to a 5.3% valuation when discounted.  Would you pay this much for this cash flow stream?

       
   DORAL's IO VALUATIONS:

If you look at Doral’s net production margin, you can see a steady march higher in recent years.  A few years back, this number was in the 300bps range and in most recent quarters it has risen as high as 800bps-900bps.  As I mentioned earlier, a large part of their production (30%) is US wholesale that should have a margin that is at best in the 50bps range.   This implies that they are recording gains of over 12.5% on the rest of their production.  The remaining production is composed of primarily Puerto Rican small balance non-conforming loans and some Puerto Rican FHA/VA and conforming production.  If you look closely at the notes in Doral’s filings, you see that they disclose the IO produced in a given quarter’s non-conforming loan structured sales.  They also disclose the non-conforming loan balance sold in these deals each quarter.  From this you can calculate the IO valuation as a % of loan balance sold in a given period.  For the past 8 quarters, this IO has been booked at 14%-18% of the loan balance underlying the IO.

 Non-conforming loan structured sale activity:
                       Q103  Q203  Q303  Q403  Q104  Q204  Q304  Q404  
Loan balance sold        289   457   513    NA   744   656   900   NA  
$ IO valuation booked     52    64    76    90   114   111   143   NA
% IO valuation booked   17.9  14.1  14.6    NA  15.3  17.0  15.9   NA

As can be seen, Doral has been valuing its IOs at 15%-17% of the underlying loan balance of in 2004.  These are the same IOs that I valued earlier at 3.5%-5.5%.  Again, since this is gain on sale accounting, the valuation is based on a set of assumptions.  Doral has chosen to use more aggressive assumptions than I felt reasonable in the earlier analysis.  Doral’s assumptions are as follows:

Average life:           7 years
Discount rate:          8.25%
Net spread:             270 bps

Doral has taken an aggressive stance on each of the key drivers of the gain on sale valuation.  The assumption that leads the greatest variance from our valuation is clearly the net spread.  We assumed approximately 90 bps of spread for the life of the deal while Doral is assuming 270bps.  What leads to this difference?  Doral has decided to conveniently ignore the forward curve.  While the market expects LIBOR to rise in the coming years, Doral is assuming that LIBOR does not budge.  Doral is valuing a cash flow stream that it is extremely unlikely to receive.  My IO valuation of roughly 4% is over 70% lower than the valuation Doral assigns to this asset.  

In the past few years, the booking of the IO has been an ever increasing component of pre-tax income:

 IO booked in period as % of pretax income:
   Q103   Q203   Q303   Q403   Q104   Q204   Q304   Q404  
   62.1   71.8   73.0   76.6   89.9   79.3   97.7     NA

Clearly, the booking of the IO is the dominant component of this company’s earnings.  If it were recorded at the valuations that I believe represent the underlying economics, earnings would be reduced anywhere from 60% - 70%.

Bulls will cite that Doral receives opinions from outside valuation firms and takes the lowest valuation for its gain on sale purposes.  It should be noted third party MSR/IO valuations are notorious for their use of management supplied assumptions.  Valuation of this type in the industry typically involve the company that hires the valuation firm, submitting the assumptions it wishes the valuation firm to use in the analysis and then the valuation firm returning an analysis yielding the valuation that resulted from the company supplied assumptions (ie the company’s valuation).  There is a high degree of flexibility with these valuations and for esoteric assets like Puerto Rican Inverse IOs the bounds are particularly wide.


THE IMPOSSIBLE HEDGE:

Doral will assure investors that the IO is hedged so there is nothing to worry about.  The fundamental problem with this argument is that one cannot hedge to lock in an impossible valuation (at least not without spending an amount that brings the value of the IO net of the hedge expense back to the true fair value).  Doral would need to lock in spot LIBOR at the current rate for the life assumed in their IO transactions (7 years).  The cost of this instrument would be the area under the forward curve and above the current 3 month LIBOR spot fixed for the life of the transaction (plus a premium).  One way to think about it is as a gross and net valuation: the gross IO valuation that Doral calculates is actually somewhat accurate under this methodology (if one ignores the aggressive discount rate, credit and life assumptions), but at the time they book the gross gain from the IO they should book an offsetting loss of the hedge (area under the curve plus the 150bps spread) to get back to a net valuation equal to what I calculated earlier in the analysis (3.5%-5.5%).  I swapped the funding out 5 years in the initial valuation analysis to capture the expectation that LIBOR would squeeze the IO spread as the life progressed and valued the cash flows net of the hedge.  

It is possible to hedge an inverse IO, but the practical options are 1) ‘lock’ in the forward curve (not spot LIBOR) through the life of the asset, or 2) swap the funding for the duration of the asset (as I assumed in the earlier valuation analysis).  So the correct valuation methodology would be to either 1) assume the funding costs rise with the forward curve and value this declining/disappearing cash flow stream, or 2) assume a swapped (average LIBOR) funding for the life of the deal and value the stable, but reduced initial cash flow stream over the life.  Both of these methods will return approximately the same valuation.  Then this valuation could be roughly locked in by either 1) shorting Eurodollar Futures along the curve for the life of the deal (reducing the hedge going out based on the CPR assumptions) or 2) swapping the funding out for the life of the deal.  Then during the life of the deal, any interest rate deviation from what the forward curve predicted at the time the deal was initially executed would have offsetting gains and losses in the IO and the hedge (assuming the hedge was put in place at the time of the deal).  For example, if the IO was valued based on the forward curve at the time the deal was initiated, and the hedge was put in place at that time, a later shift to higher expected rates reflected in the forward curve would force an impairment to the IO, but also an offsetting gain in the hedge.

Under Doral’s valuation methodology, every time LIBOR rises they will either need to impair their IO valuation, or relax some of their other assumptions (beyond already extremely aggressive levels).  And they can not “hedge” against this inevitability.  It is not possible to hedge to lock in the valuation that assumes spot LIBOR persists for 7 years without spending the entire area under the curve for the life of the deal, and it is clear from a quick look at their financials that they haven’t expensed what would be required to buy this protection.  

It should also be noted that of late Doral has been able to take advantage of their double secret “macro hedge” to shield their earnings from impairments.  As far as I know this is some kind of tax deal with the Puerto Rican government that conveniently became available as they started to take IO impairments.  Details surrounding this are sparse as, according to the company, they are covered by a non-disclosure agreement with the Puerto Rican government.

(***due to VIC length constraints this write-up is continued in the MESSAGE STRING THAT FOLLOWS***)"
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Catalyst tr
-Continued impairments to the IO
-Investors no longer believe that the reported earnings represent economic earnings
-Potential for earnings restatement
-Potential for off balance sheet assets and liabilities being put back on balance sheet
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Messages tr
#
Author
Subject
Private
12
molly747
KitKat
I would be happy to walk you through it
11
molly747
To say that the company is "ho
To say that the company is "honest" is complete garbage. If they were "honest" then they are incompetent. If they aren't incompetent, then they are dishonest, but they cannot be both honest and competent. Suggesting the company should earn $3 per share simply illustrates the utter lack of knowledge about how this company makes money, or lack thereof.
10
max318
Molly, I was wondering where
Molly,
I was wondering where you got your estimate for the liquidity porblem if
all the loans with recourse are brought on balance sheet. It looks like the after
tax write down, in the worst case is going to bring them to $964M in common equity,
and from the note below, they might face $3B extra on their balance sheet of $13B.
They should still avoid a crisis? How did you get to the highly leveraged scenario
you mentioned in your follow ups? Thanks.

For me it worked out more to like $8 a share in equity supporting $150 in assets. This is still with a 0.33% loss reserve on that $3.3B in loans they might have to bring on balance sheet.


Off-Balance-Sheet
Activities

In the ordinary course of business, loans that do not qualify for the
insurance or guarantee programs of FHA and VA, or the sale or exchange programs of FNMA
or FHLMC (“non-conforming loans”) are often sold to investors on a full or partial
recourse basis pursuant to which Doral Financial retains all or part of the credit
risk associated with such loan after sale. Recourse is generally limited to a period
of time (generally 24 months) and, in the case of partial recourse, up to a 15% of
the principal amount of the loans sold. As of December 31, 2004, the outstanding
principal balance of loans sold subject to full or partial recourse was $3.9 billion. As
of such date, the maximum principal amount in loans that Doral Financial would have
been required to repurchase if all loans subject to recourse defaulted was $3.3
billion (see Table W – Other Commercial Commitments for a breakdown of recourse
obligation by expiration period). Doral Financial’s contingent obligation with respect to
such recourse provision is not reflected on Doral Financial’s Consolidated Financial
Statements, except for a reserve of $10.8 million for estimated losses from such
recourse agreements, which is included in “Accrued expenses and other liabilities.”
During 2004, Doral Financial repurchased approximately $171.9 million of loans subject
to recourse. Historically, losses on recourse obligation have not been significant
because such loans generally have low loan-to-value ratios. As of December 31, 2004,
approximately $164.1 million or 4% of the principal amount in loans sold with
recourse were 60 days or more past due.
9
kitkat919
income statement IO income
Great write up. Hope the discusson isn't dead
Two questions
Where in your valuation do you account for what Doral pays to originate the nonconforming loan? They shouldn't be granted a 7.5% coupon should they? Shouldn't it be net of the cost of borrowing? That of course would narrow the return on the IIO

And where in the income statement is the income from IOs recognized? I see the interest income broken out but no recognition of any other income recognized on the IO separated from gains on sales of mortgages. How did you arrive at 62%-97% of income attributable to IOS

Thanks for your write up and your help
8
biv930
valuation
Excellent write-up. I had not done the level of work you did when I read your report, but I have just spent some time looking at drl. I am coming up with an adjusted book value of approximately $6.55 and an adjusted diluted eps for 2004 of $0.60 based on revaluing the gain on sale for the IO and netting out the $77m tax benefit. Based on my work, drl still looks overvalued. Was wondering what your perspective is?
7
dle413
valuation
sorry - i just saw your valuation estimate on the other string
6
dle413
thanks for the education
I owned this from 28 to 48.50 and fortunately sold. After reading this - it will go down as the luckiest money I have ever made - though I sold for the right reasons.

What is your estimate of intrinsic value? it seems that you see at best 25% return on book of $8 or $2 of earnings - does that imply a still risky $20 target price? where will you cover your position?
5
VIC
Post Messages on Doral 3/12/05
There are 2 recent Doral posts to the site, one long and one short. Please post all messages to the previous 3/12 Doral posting:
http://www.valueinvestorsclub.com/value2/Members/view-thread.asp?id=1821&more=dtrue
4
molly747
reply to tbzeej825

I think the primary catalyst for this will be investors continuing to figure out the accouting game going on here. Over the past two months the market's knowledge of this company has expanded dramatically and I expect that to continue. This will be reinforced by continued impairments to the balance sheet as the cash flow from the IO declines. It also seems that the company can't continue to extend its assumptions on new gain on sale valuations beyond these already extreme levels so as the short end of the curve rises, the gains on new production should also decline pretty sharply.

I also think it is possible that the auditors take a closer look at Doral's financial statements and take issue with the accounting.

But I do agree, the catalyst is tough here because you have a situation where a company is making up its earnings, and this has been going on for years. But now that LIBOR is finally rising, there will be a cash impact and they will be forced to take writedowns of the balance sheet and reduce gain on sale valuations.

There is a chance the stock rallies around the company's post 10K conference call so that could present a good opportunity to enter/expand a position.
3
molly747
continuation of idea part 2
HOW IS THE THESIS INVALIDATED?

There is one key point that could invalidate this thesis. Doral has lately been
claiming to have embedded caps in their structured loan sales. Because the funding
is floating rate a cap would protect Doral from the rising rates that I believe will
dramatically reduce or even completely cut off the cash flow coming off these IOs.
Doral has stated that the caps are all over the place has steered investors to
believe that they are close to the current coupon on the floating rate loans sold in the
deals (approximately 5%). I am skeptical that this is the case for a few reasons.
First, this is illogical that there are caps that low as it would not make sense for
any bank to buy this floating rate asset at a spread to LIBOR if there was a cap
only slightly above the initial floating rates earned on the loans. Why would an
investor give up the front end of the curve and buy an asset that has a cap at 5% (ie
same duration mismatch as a long term fixed asset) when that investor could buy a
current coupon Fannie at a higher yield than 5% and shorter duration than what Doral is
assuming for its deals? Note that Puerto Rican banks get favorable tax treatment on
GSE MBS as well. Many large buyers of the loans and other market participants have
also indicated that there are indeed caps, but the caps are at the WAC (weighted
average coupon of the mortgage pool) less the servicing fee, and many deals don’t have
caps at all, but give Doral the right to buy out of the deal at par if the cost of
the funding reaches the WAC on the underlying loan portfolio. Doral having caps at
the WAC does not impair the thesis at all, as this does not impact the cash flows
assumed in the valuation. I also find it suspect that this low cap explanation became
part of the investment thesis only recently. It is always suspicious when the bull
case keeps changing.



SANITY CHECKS:

1) Is Doral really making $16,000 for the act of making a $100,000 mortgage loan
to low income Puerto Rican? That is what their IO valuation
implies.

2) 2. Doral's market cap is over 20% that of CFC. Doral is the largest mortgage
originator on a tiny island in the Caribbean, while CFC is the largest originator in
the entire United States. Doral originates 8B per year and CFC will originate
325B-350B in post refinance boom 2005. Moreover, CFC has a much larger portion of its
earnings coming from non mortgage production activities. One could argue that
Doral’s market position gives it the ability to originate mortgages at substantially
profit margins than what CFC is able to do the in the commoditized mortgage market in the
United States and therefore warrants a valuation premium. While I can’t argue with
that, I don’t believe Doral has a market position that allows it to earn margins on
this non-conforming production in the 1600 bps range. That valuation implies that
a competitor could come to the market and offer a mortgage rate 200bps lower than
what Doral is offering and the competitor would still earn a tremendous 400bps gain on
sale. I know the Puerto Rican borrower is unique, but I am sure that kind of rate
differential (5.0% mortgage yield versus 7.0%) would move a lot of volume. So if
competitors could earn a 4% gain on sale even if they under priced Doral by 200bps why
don’t they do it? In fact, why do they complain that the market is hyper
competitive and they can’t price at a rate beneath Doral and still be profitable? Because
that 200bps underpricing analysis is derived from the 16% gain on sale that Doral is
assuming it is earning on its production, and that 16% is an accounting fiction which
does not represent economic reality. Doral is economically earning something more
like a 4% margin which potentially gives competitors more like 20bps to work
with.
2
molly747
continuation of idea part 3


VALUATION:

Doral trades at $39, or 8.7x street 05 earnings expectations of 4.50. As I
believe Doral’s economic earnings are somewhere well below half that amount I would say
that I don’t believe it is cheap on a PE basis. The company is trading at 18x-22x
what I believe it is truly earning.

Doral’s reported common equity per share is about $13.00. It is trading at about
3x current book value. But if the IOs are revalued to what I believe they are worth
(again using what I believe are aggressive assumptions and a price I would not pay)
book value is below $8 and Doral is trading at over 5x book value. This for a
company that I believe is economically earning at best 25% ROE on that lower book
value.

Bulls often cite Doral’s excess capital position, but I will point out that the
banking subsidiaries are not well capitalized and all the “excess capital” resides at
the parent company in this overvalued IO. If the IO were marked down, Doral would
actually not be in a well capitalized
position.



ONE LAST POINT:

As I mentioned earlier, Doral’s loan sale structures are mostly executed on a full
recourse basis. This means that if a loan that Doral sold into a pool goes
non-performing for 90 days, Doral is responsible to either buy the loan at par, or replace
the loan with a healthy loan. The impact on Doral’s future credit costs is
uncertain but the impact on Doral’s accounting treatment could be significant. Since these
transactions are done with recourse I don’t believe that they qualify for off
balance sheet treatment. This is an interesting question and I am not certain of the
answer. Though I will point out that disclosure has recently been increasing every
quarter and that is unlikely by choice so it appears that the auditors are starting to
look at these numbers more closely—the coming 10K should be a good read. I do know
that if they were forced to take all this off balance sheet leverage back on balance
sheet, their book value would be reduced to about $5 per share and their assets
would increase dramatically to over $200 per share. 40:1 leverage would have
interesting implications for the overcapitalization
argument.
1
molly747
continuation of idea
(***due to VIC length constraints this write-up is a continuation of the previous
posting***)


ASSUMPTION RELAXATION AND OTHER SIGNS OF STRESS:

Many signs of stress began to appear in Doral’s financials towards the end of
2004. In order to stretch their IO valuations to meet ever increasing earnings guidance
(which by the way the company believes it should beat through 2006) the company
made IO assumptions on both the existing portfolio and on new production increasingly
more aggressive. Discount rates have been falling and dipped below 8% in the most
recent quarter. Amortization speeds have been reduced to offset the growing expense
associated with amortizing the overvalued and ever building IO asset. In 2003 the IO
amortization rate was about 18% and in the most recent quarter it had fallen to as
low as 12%, even as the servicing portfolio runoff has remained above 20%. This
amortization reduction ties directly to write-down avoidance as the following table
shows:


Q103 Q203 Q303 Q403 Q104 Q204 Q304 Q404
% cash yield on IO 26.9 26.5 25.0 24.6 23.1 21.9 19.1 NA
% amortization of IO 15.4 18.0 18.2 17.8 15.0 13.9 12.3 NA
% net yield on IO 11.6 8.4 6.8 6.8 8.1 8.0 6.8 NA

The above table is derived from data that is available in Doral’s 10Q filings.
From disclosed data, one can calculate the net yield and amortization rate on the IO
asset. The net yield is equal to the gross yield less the amortization. Therefore,
given the net yield and the amortization one can back into the actual gross cash
yield that Doral is earning on its IOs. From the above data one can see that the cash
yield on the IO has been falling consistently every quarter as a result of 1)
assumptions being made more aggressive and 2) more recently a rising LIBOR squeezing the
IO strip. As a result of the falling cash yield Doral was left with the choice to
either take impairments or reduce the amortization rate (which is the equivalent of
increasing the life assumption on the portfolio). In order to please the Street and
continue the stock’s amazing run, Doral chose to reduce the amortization rate in an
attempt to keep the net yield from falling below the discount rate. The net yield
should equal the discount rate for the life of the deal and note that in Q3 the net
yield was actually below the discount rate by over 100 bps. It is also important to
note that this assumption relaxation is being made on the entire existing IO
portfolio. This means that for a loan structure that should have a 5 year life and a
portfolio that has an average age of near two years they are amortizing at a rate and
valuing the IO at a level that assumes the existing, static portfolio is going to
survive for another 8-10 years. This is very important and I walk through it in greater
detail below:

Static IO Accounting and Cash Flow Example
Assumptions:
Discount rate: 8%
Life: 5 years
Cash flows: 25
These assumptions yield an IO valuation of roughly 100

Year 1 2 3 4 5
IO Balance BOP 100 82.8 64.4 44.6 23.1
Gross yield (cash) 25 25 25 25 25
Amortization (cash) 17 18.4 19.8 21.4 23.1
Net yield (cash) 8 6.6 5.2 3.6 1.9
IO Balance EOP 82.8 64.4 44.6 23.1 -

% cash yield 25% 30% 39% 56% 108%
% amortization 17% 22% 31% 48% 100%
% net yield (discount rate) 8% 8% 8% 8% 8%

In the above table I take a simple example cash flow stream, valued it at 100
using the above assumptions and walk through how the accounting for the IO should look
over the life. It is very interesting to look at a static analysis and compare it to
Doral’s IO characteristics. Notice in the static analysis how the cash yield rises
as the asset is amortized. Because the cash flow stream has fixed amount and a
finite life, the yield should rise as the asset ages and value of the remaining
(shorter) life asset is less (same numerator over a smaller denominator). In Doral’s case,
the cash yield on the portfolio has actually been falling, and this was before
LIBOR even really started to rise. It is interesting that a portfolio that has been
aging and should have an increasing cash yield actually has a falling yield. This
indicates that they are constantly assuming that the portfolio is brand new production
(of an increasing life no less), even though the remaining life is decreasing as the
portfolio ages. Add to this the fact that their cash flows are not fixed in amount,
but are decreasing as LIBOR rises and the IO valuation becomes extremely troubling.
As the portfolio continues to age and the company continues to underamortize the
asset, the cash yield will continue to fall as the asset builds and the problem will
compound. All of this results in a recipe for substantial impairments to the
balance sheet and capital position of this
company.
bl br